Answers To Difficult Questions

About The Sabbath

 

Part 2

 

 

source of questions:

http://www.bible.ca/7-sabbath-questions.htm

 

Answers provided by the DivineBase Ministry.

 

Approved By

The Man Who Saw God Face To Face

Raphael Okechukwu Nweze

 

 

1.     If only the ten commandments are going to endure until heaven and earth pass away, why did Jesus say the law AND THE PROPHETS? Mt 5:17-18

 

Answer:

                               i.      The Ten Commandments were given a slaws.

                             ii.      The Prophets interpret the laws for humanity.

                          iii.      Both law and its interpretations are relevant.

 

2.     When Jesus was asked, "Teacher, which is the great commandment in the Law?" why did Jesus NOT QUOTE from the 10 commandments, but from the abolished ceremonial law of Moses? Matthew 22:36-40

 

Answer:

Jesus gave a summary of the law as was necessary at that point in time, for the law has so many laws within it, just as book has so many words inside it.

 

3.     If the 10 commandments are the highest and most complete expression of God's will, then why did it lack the two most important commandments? Matthew 22:36-40 where is the prohibition against drunkeness, homosexuality and fornication?

 

Answer:

                               i.   God never said that the Ten Commandments is comprehensive.

                             ii.   He gave 613 laws to the Israelites.

                          iii.   People are so spiritually lazy that they do not even want to read the laws given by God, let alone obey them.

 

4.     If the 10 commandments are the highest and most complete expression of God's will, then why did Jesus give a new commandment to "love one another, even as I have loved you" John 13:34. Where were the Jews told to love their neighbor as Yahweh loved them?

 

Answer:

                               i.      It is disappointing that Christians do not read the Bible, while those who read misinterpret the contents.

                             ii.      18 You shall not take vengeance, nor bear any grudge against the children of your people, but you shall love your neighbor as yourself: I am the LORD. Leviticus 19:18

 

5.     If Christians worshipping on Sunday is equal to Sun Worship, then is Adventists worshipping on Saturday equal to Saturn worship?

 

Answer:

                               i.      No.

                             ii.      Besides, the Sabbath is not Saturday. Sabbath is from 4:00pm on Friday to 4:00pm on Saturday.

 

6.     If Sabbatarians will boldly quote "scholars" who are really Bible trashers and skeptics who claim "the origin of Sunday worship is entirely pagan", like Arthur Weigall in his ridiculous little book, "the paganism in our Christianity", will these same Sabbatarians turn a few pages later where these same authors say the origin of the Sabbath is also pagan? "I have, already mentioned that Sunday, too, was a pagan holy-day; and in this chapter I propose to discuss the origin of this custom of keeping one day in the week as a Sabbath, or "day of rest,' and' to show that the practice was forcefully opposed by Jesus Christ. The origin of the seven-day week which was used by the Jews and certain other peoples, but not till, later by the Greeks or Romans, is to be sought in some primitive worship of the moon (The Paganism in Our Christianity, Arthur Weigall, 1928, p209,210-211)

 

Answer:

                   i.      Sabbath has no pagan origin because it is instituted by God on the seventh day after creation.

                 ii.      Thus the heavens and the earth, and all the host of them, were finished. 2 And on the seventh day God ended His work which He had done, and He rested on the seventh day from all His work which He had done. 3 Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it He rested from all His work which God had created and made. Genesis 2:1-3

              iii.      Before God started to create, He was resting. And after creation, He returned to His rest.

            

7.     If the Sabbath is a moral law, why did Jesus say that David, the priests, a man with his donkey could all break the Sabbath without sin? Mt 12:1-14; Mk 2:23f, Lk 13:10-17; 14:1-6 Jn 5:8-18; 7:19-24; 9:14-16.

 

Answer:

…

 

8.     If the Sabbath is a moral law, why did God grow tired of the Jews keeping it and told them to stop keeping the Sabbath? Isa 1:13-14 Did God ever grow weary of anyone not committing adultery or murder, and tell them to be immoral and kill?

 

Answer:

                               i.      The Jews were keeping the Sabbath without living in love and righteousness.

                             ii.      Would you accept gifts from somebody you know to be a thief?

                          iii.      What God said/did is justified.

 

9.     If the Sabbath is a moral law, how could Jesus break it without sinning? Jn 5:18

 

Answer:

                               i.      Jesus was not breaking the Sabbath.

                             ii.      He was showing the world the right way to keep the Sabbath.

                          iii.      He meant that you should leave somebody suffering in the Sabbath Day.

                          iv.      This again is love, unselfish love, because by so doing God was giving part of His own day for the good of mankind.

 

10.                        If one of the distinctions between the Ten Commandments was proven by the fact they were written by the finger of God, why did Moses copy them out twice with his own hand? How can there be any distinction between the 10 commandments in the ark and the book of the law beside the ark, if the book contained two copies of exactly what was in the ark?

 

Answer:

                               i.      This question is not relevant.

                             ii.      You do not ask the companies why they produce so many copies of the same item.

                          iii.      Just as you do not ask the authors why they publish so many copies of the same book.

 

11.                        Why are the terms "ceremonial law" and "moral law" never found in the Bible. Why is the word ceremonial or any of its roots never found in the same verse as the word LAW and why is the word moral or any of its roots never found in the same verse as the word LAW?

 

Answer:

The law remains valid, whether you call it ceremonial, moral, book or writings.

 

12.                        If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, why do "God's laws" and "the law of God" contain ceremonial laws. Why do "Moses law" and the "law of Moses" contain moral laws?

 

Answer:

                               i.      This question is not necessary.

                             ii.      Again, I warn you that the Holy Spirit does not approve of someone who is doubtful.

 

13.                        If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, why does the "law of God" command animal sacrifices Lk 2:23-24 and the "law of the Lord" contains burnt offerings 2 Chron 31:3; 1 Chron 16:40?

 

Answer:

                               i.      It is only a fool that asks useless question.

                             ii.      Burnt offerings and animal sacrifice mean the same thing.

 

14.                        If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, then why is the book of the law filled with moral laws not contained in the 10 commandments?

 

Answer:

                               i.      God gave the world 613 (6+1+3=10) laws.

                             ii.      The Ten Commandments were just the beginning, the introduction.

 

15.                        If there is a distinction between the Law of the Lord and the Law of Moses, why in 2 Chron 35:26 are "the acts of Josiah and his deeds of devotion as written in the law of the Lord"?

 

Answer:

                               i.      The Bible is the law of God, which book was increasing (developing) with time.

                             ii.      Jesus made this clear, saying,

                          iii.      52 Then He said to them, "Therefore every scribe instructed concerning the kingdom of heaven is like a householder who brings out of his treasure things new and old."  Matthew 13:52

                          iv.      At the time of Moses, it was only five books. At the time of David, the psalms were not yet included because David wrote most of the psalms.

 

16.                        If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, then why does the Law of God include new moons, solemn feast days: Ps 81:3-4?

 

Answer:

                               i.      The laws of God include both moral and ceremonial laws.

                             ii.      That is why Jesus said it is fitting to fulfill all righteousness.

17.                        If there is a distinction between the Law of the Lord and the Law of Moses, why did the law tell Israel to dwell in tents: Neh 8:14?

 

Answer:

                               i.      There is no distinction between the Law of the Lord and the Law of Moses.

                             ii.      Israelites dwell intents as a reminder of their deliverance from Egypt.

 

                          iii.       42 You shall dwell in booths for seven days. All who are native Israelites shall dwell in booths, 43 that your generations may know that I made the children of Israel dwell in booths when I brought them out of the land of Egypt: I am the LORD your God.'" Leviticus 23:41-43

 

18.                        If Jesus came to fulfill the law and the prophets, then didn't Mt 5:17 say that only then would they be abolished before heaven and earth pass away? If the law and the prophets are still in force, doesn't that prove Jesus didn't fulfill the law completely?

 

Answer:

                               i.   Perfection begins when all the laws are fulfilled.

                             ii.   “Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect.” Matthew 5:48

                          iii.   Therefore, the laws shall still be relevant.

 

19.                        When you ask me, "if the 10 commandments are abolished, does that mean we can steal", can I ask you, "when you travel from Canada to the USA, does that mean you can steal? Is it possible that two completely different "codes of law" (law of Moses vs. law of Christ) have the same laws just like Canada and the USA?

 

Answer:

                               i.      The laws of Moses are the same as the laws of Jesus Christ. Jesus only gave corrections.

                             ii.      They are both prophets of God.

                          iii.      The word of God is one.

 

20.                        If the Jewish law against eating pork was abolished by Christ, why do Sabbatarians continue to enforce what they call, "the ceremonial law of Moses": Mk 7:18-19; 1 Tim 4:1-4; Rom 14:2; Acts 10:9-16

 

Answer:

                               i.   It is not spiritually good to eat pork.

                             ii.   The same thing is true, health wise.